anotherordinaryboy
Cheeky Scamp
Now before anybody criticises me for bringing up a subject which I'm guessing as been talked about many many times before, I'm asking this question to fellow fans out of curiosity and ignorance.
I understand that Mike Joyce and Andy Rourke sued Morrissey and Marr in 1989 for 25% of The Smiths recording royalties. I understand that they did they because they believd they were entitled to this, and not to the 10% that they received.
I'm aware that the case went to court in 1996. I know that Rourke settled out of court, and that Joyce has since pursued Morrissey and Marr for the money he is owed.
I've known this for ages, and not really been fussed. The music is what is important to me. But I came across The smiths wikipedia page, which directed me to this True To You statement from Morrissey from 2005:
http://true-to-you.net/morrissey_news_051130_01
If anyone could explain this whole thing to me, i'd appreciate it. By 'recording royalties' - what exactly does this mean? 25% of the rights to all sales of Smiths music? Is he ACTUALLY entitled to this, seeing as he wasn't one of the MAIN creative forces behind The Smiths. Is Morrissey being screwed like he says.
I'm not interested in opinions or idiots slagging off Morrissey or Joyce, but if anyone has actual knowledge of the situation, or has a legal understanding of what went on, I'd love to know a bit more.
Thanks in advance,
anotherordinaryboy
I understand that Mike Joyce and Andy Rourke sued Morrissey and Marr in 1989 for 25% of The Smiths recording royalties. I understand that they did they because they believd they were entitled to this, and not to the 10% that they received.
I'm aware that the case went to court in 1996. I know that Rourke settled out of court, and that Joyce has since pursued Morrissey and Marr for the money he is owed.
I've known this for ages, and not really been fussed. The music is what is important to me. But I came across The smiths wikipedia page, which directed me to this True To You statement from Morrissey from 2005:
http://true-to-you.net/morrissey_news_051130_01
If anyone could explain this whole thing to me, i'd appreciate it. By 'recording royalties' - what exactly does this mean? 25% of the rights to all sales of Smiths music? Is he ACTUALLY entitled to this, seeing as he wasn't one of the MAIN creative forces behind The Smiths. Is Morrissey being screwed like he says.
I'm not interested in opinions or idiots slagging off Morrissey or Joyce, but if anyone has actual knowledge of the situation, or has a legal understanding of what went on, I'd love to know a bit more.
Thanks in advance,
anotherordinaryboy